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From what I've seen in the below sources, it appears that a large number of men didn't vote during the early times. May I know if this is true to most places as well? Why was this the case and when did most men get their right to vote?
In early-19th-century Britain, very few people had the right to vote. A survey conducted in 1780 revealed that the electorate in England and Wales consisted of just 214,000 people - less than 3% of the total population of approximately 8 million. In Scotland the electorate was even smaller: in 1831 a mere 4,500 men, out of a population of more than 2.6 million people, were entitled to vote in parliamentary elections.
America: At the time of the first Presidential election in 1789, only 6 percent of the population-white, male property owners-was eligible to vote.
Between 1867 and 1874 in Canada only <12% of the population eligible to vote